Q1. GSS enable meetings to take place at many locations simultaneously. a. true b. false
Q2. Distance learning supports continuous learning within organizations. a. true b. false
Q3. The standard GSS process begins with idea organization. a. true b. false
Q4. The most common way to deploy a GSS today is through the use of a decision room. a. true b. false
Q5. Organizations use online training to reduce training costs. a. true b. false
Q6. The standard GSS process ends with idea generation. a. true b. false
Q7. Distance learning can be utilized 24/7. a. true b. false
Q8. Which of the following is a groupwork process? a. Delphi Method b. Flannery Method c. Nominal Group Technique d. Delphi Method and Flannery Method e. Delphi Method and Nominal Group Technique
Q9. Creativity can be defined as either a trait or an achievement. a. true b. false
Q10. Distance learning is a fairly new phenomenon, having been first developed in the 1990s. a. true b. false
Q11. The most common way to deploy a GSS today is through the use of Web technologies. a. true b. false
Q12. Personality influences creativity. a. true b. false
Q13. The acronym CSCW stands for computer-supported communication in work. a. true b. false
Q14. The Internet is the only way to deliver distance learning today. a. true b. false
Q15. Distance learning is considered a form of collaborative computing. a. true b. false
Q16. Groupware are computerized tools designed to provide group support. a. true b. false
Q17. ERP is designed to control all major business processes with a single software architecture. a. true b. false
Q18. Supply chain management begins with raw material and ends with finished goods to the end customers. a. true b. false
Q19. Which of the following capabilities best differentiates EIS from DSS? a. What-if b. Modeling c. Communication d. Graphics e. User interface
Q20. The terms executive information systems and executive support systems are used interchangeably. a. true b. false
Q21. PLM systems and BPM systems are essentially the same thing. a. true b. false
Q22. Enterprise information systems are designed to support top management and middle management. a. true b. false
Q23. Exception reporting focuses on deviations from predefined standards. a. true b. false
Q24. Another term for enterprise portal is corporate portal. a. true b. false
Q25. Though ERP is transaction-based it can provide information for high-level decision-making in an organization. a. true b. false
Q26. CRM systems are batch applications designed to operate at low peak times. a. true b. false
Q27. The flow of materials from its sources to a company, and then within a company is referred to as its demand chain. a. true b. false
Q28. An enterprise portal integrates all external applications. a. true b. false
Q29. It is possible to integrate CRM systems with other enterprise information systems in an organization. a. true b. false
Q30. Soft information is a term used to describe objective information that is non-financial. a. true b. false
Q31. Enterprise information systems and executive information systems are essentially the same thing. a. true b. false
Q32. Enterprise portals utilize Web technology. a. true b. false
Q33. Learning can be passive, active, or intermediate. a. true b. false
Q34. Explicit knowledge is objective. a. true b. false
Q35. The earliest knowledge management systems were best practices repositories. a. true b. false
Q36. Explicit knowledge is easy to capture and document. a. true b. false
Q37. Knowledge management can be performed using document management. a. true b. false
Q38. Which of the following is easier to capture and disseminate? a. Tacit knowledge b. Explicit knowledge c. Both tacit and explicit knowledge d. Neither tacit or explicit knowledge e. Organizational memory
Q39. COPs can impact organizational culture changes. a. true b. false
Q40. Intellectual capital is a synonym for knowledge. a. true b. false
Q41. It is easy to measure the value of a knowledge management system. a. true b. false
Q42. Determining the value of an organization's intellectual assets is relatively easy. a. true b. false
Q43. Socialization refers to converting tacit knowledge to explicit knowledge. a. true b. false
Q44. Tacit knowledge is hard to document. a. true b. false
Q45. Explicit knowledge is hard to document. a. true b. false
Q46. Knowledge management sometimes makes use of artificial intelligence technologies. a. true b. false
Q47. Knowledge management can only be developed utilizing a practice approach. a. true b. false
Q48. Organizational culture can impact profitability. a. true b. false
Q49. A knowledge repository is a collection of internal and external knowledge. a. true b. false
Q50. Tacit knowledge has been called sticky knowledge. a. true b. false
Q2. Distance learning supports continuous learning within organizations. a. true b. false
Q3. The standard GSS process begins with idea organization. a. true b. false
Q4. The most common way to deploy a GSS today is through the use of a decision room. a. true b. false
Q5. Organizations use online training to reduce training costs. a. true b. false
Q6. The standard GSS process ends with idea generation. a. true b. false
Q7. Distance learning can be utilized 24/7. a. true b. false
Q8. Which of the following is a groupwork process? a. Delphi Method b. Flannery Method c. Nominal Group Technique d. Delphi Method and Flannery Method e. Delphi Method and Nominal Group Technique
Q9. Creativity can be defined as either a trait or an achievement. a. true b. false
Q10. Distance learning is a fairly new phenomenon, having been first developed in the 1990s. a. true b. false
Q11. The most common way to deploy a GSS today is through the use of Web technologies. a. true b. false
Q12. Personality influences creativity. a. true b. false
Q13. The acronym CSCW stands for computer-supported communication in work. a. true b. false
Q14. The Internet is the only way to deliver distance learning today. a. true b. false
Q15. Distance learning is considered a form of collaborative computing. a. true b. false
Q16. Groupware are computerized tools designed to provide group support. a. true b. false
Q17. ERP is designed to control all major business processes with a single software architecture. a. true b. false
Q18. Supply chain management begins with raw material and ends with finished goods to the end customers. a. true b. false
Q19. Which of the following capabilities best differentiates EIS from DSS? a. What-if b. Modeling c. Communication d. Graphics e. User interface
Q20. The terms executive information systems and executive support systems are used interchangeably. a. true b. false
Q21. PLM systems and BPM systems are essentially the same thing. a. true b. false
Q22. Enterprise information systems are designed to support top management and middle management. a. true b. false
Q23. Exception reporting focuses on deviations from predefined standards. a. true b. false
Q24. Another term for enterprise portal is corporate portal. a. true b. false
Q25. Though ERP is transaction-based it can provide information for high-level decision-making in an organization. a. true b. false
Q26. CRM systems are batch applications designed to operate at low peak times. a. true b. false
Q27. The flow of materials from its sources to a company, and then within a company is referred to as its demand chain. a. true b. false
Q28. An enterprise portal integrates all external applications. a. true b. false
Q29. It is possible to integrate CRM systems with other enterprise information systems in an organization. a. true b. false
Q30. Soft information is a term used to describe objective information that is non-financial. a. true b. false
Q31. Enterprise information systems and executive information systems are essentially the same thing. a. true b. false
Q32. Enterprise portals utilize Web technology. a. true b. false
Q33. Learning can be passive, active, or intermediate. a. true b. false
Q34. Explicit knowledge is objective. a. true b. false
Q35. The earliest knowledge management systems were best practices repositories. a. true b. false
Q36. Explicit knowledge is easy to capture and document. a. true b. false
Q37. Knowledge management can be performed using document management. a. true b. false
Q38. Which of the following is easier to capture and disseminate? a. Tacit knowledge b. Explicit knowledge c. Both tacit and explicit knowledge d. Neither tacit or explicit knowledge e. Organizational memory
Q39. COPs can impact organizational culture changes. a. true b. false
Q40. Intellectual capital is a synonym for knowledge. a. true b. false
Q41. It is easy to measure the value of a knowledge management system. a. true b. false
Q42. Determining the value of an organization's intellectual assets is relatively easy. a. true b. false
Q43. Socialization refers to converting tacit knowledge to explicit knowledge. a. true b. false
Q44. Tacit knowledge is hard to document. a. true b. false
Q45. Explicit knowledge is hard to document. a. true b. false
Q46. Knowledge management sometimes makes use of artificial intelligence technologies. a. true b. false
Q47. Knowledge management can only be developed utilizing a practice approach. a. true b. false
Q48. Organizational culture can impact profitability. a. true b. false
Q49. A knowledge repository is a collection of internal and external knowledge. a. true b. false
Q50. Tacit knowledge has been called sticky knowledge. a. true b. false
Q1. A distinguishing feature of an expert system is that it involves knowledge processing. a. true b. false
Q2. The primary objective of AI is to build computer systems that perform tasks that can be characterized as intelligent. a. true b. false
Q3. Inferencing in AI is done from: a. algorithms. b. facts, rules and heuristics. c. cognitive subsystems. d. long-term memory. e. short-term memory.
Q4. The inference engine performs the reasoning in an expert system. a. true b. false
Q5. Genetic algorithms and intelligent agents are essentially the same thing. a. true b. false
Q6. AI is behavior by a machine that if performed by a human would be deemed intelligent. a. true b. false
Q7. Most expert systems are limited to a narrow domain. a. true b. false
Q8. Knowledge, rather than data or information, is a key concept of AI. a. true b. false
Q9. Expert systems are called expert because they require a domain expert. a. true b. false
Q10. Backward chaining looks at the IF part of a rule first, then evaluates its result. a. true b. false
Q11. Voice recognition requires the use of artificial intelligence. a. true b. false
Q12. Expert systems typically deal with qualitative data easily. a. true b. false
Q13. Knowledge transfer from the expert to the expert system is subject to perceptual biases. a. true b. false
Q14. Most of the knowledge within an organization is contained with a few experts. a. true b. false
Q15. The knowledge base of an expert system is the same as a knowledge repository in a knowledge management system. a. true b. false
Q16. One generic category of expert systems is operations. a. true b. false
Q17. If final average > 93 then your grade is an A; is an example of a declarative rule. a. true b. false
Q18. Protocol tracking is a technique used to track the reasoning process of an expert. a. true b. false
Q19. There is a relationship between Mid-East oil production and the price of gasoline is an example of declarative knowledge. a. true b. false
Q20. RGA is most effective where the importance of attributes affecting a decision is unknown. a. true b. false
Q21. Procedural knowledge are a series of statements of facts. a. true b. false
Q22. Surface knowledge deals with specific situations. a. true b. false
Q23. Knowledge acquisition is always acquired through structured interviews. a. true b. false
Q24. Validation of the knowledge base is the exclusive responsibility of the knowledge engineer. a. true b. false
Q25. The personality of a knowledge engineer can have a direct influence on experts who are contributing to a knowledge base. a. true b. false
Q26. It is possible to observe experts in action, because they really like to be observed. a. true b. false
Q27. Shallow knowledge considers the internal and causal structure of the knowledge. a. true b. false
Q28. For knowledge to be considered valid it must be documented. a. true b. false
Q29. Acquiring knowledge is easy; managing knowledge is difficult. a. true b. false
Q30. Knowledge stored by human experts is typically structured. a. true b. false
Q31. Knowledge engineering typically involves acquiring knowledge from experts. a. true b. false
Q32. The Web has yet to make an impact on expert systems. a. true b. false
Q33. One of the advantages of the case-based reasoning approach is that learning can occur from failures as well as successes. a. true b. false
Q34. Learning rate and momentum are adjusted when training a back propagation neural network. a. true b. false
Q35. Modification rules determine the scope of change when using an historical case to evaluate a new problem. a. true b. false
Q36. Fuzzy logic has a consistent set of mathematical and membership operations. a. true b. false
Q37. Machine learning describes how a computer system learns from experience. a. true b. false
Q38. Machine learning and knowledge acquisition are essentially the same thing. a. true b. false
Q39. Fuzzy logic is designed primarily to handle structured problems that are repetitive in nature. a. true b. false
Q40. The primary knowledge element in case-based reasoning is the rule base. a. true b. false
Q41. Machine learning utilizes historical cases. a. true b. false
Q42. Most complex neural networks require virtually no hidden layers, relying instead on a large number of input and output layers. a. true b. false
Q43. Machine learning is used in knowledge acquisition, inferencing, and problem solving. a. true b. false
Q44. Case-based reasoning is appropriate when the problem domain is already precedent based. a. true b. false
Q45. Some neural network learning methods involve computing errors between known outputs and computed outputs and propagating the corrections forward through the network. a. true b. false
Q46. Machine learning is considered an artificial intelligence method. a. true b. false
Q47. A recurrent layer is one in which activity must go through the network more than once. a. true b. false
Q48. Case-based reasoning relies on indexing new events for subsequent usage. a. true b. false
Q49. Inductive learning allows the computer to use historical cases to solve new problems. a. true b. false
Q50. Neural systems are comprised of processing elements called artificial neuritis. a. true b. false.
Q2. The primary objective of AI is to build computer systems that perform tasks that can be characterized as intelligent. a. true b. false
Q3. Inferencing in AI is done from: a. algorithms. b. facts, rules and heuristics. c. cognitive subsystems. d. long-term memory. e. short-term memory.
Q4. The inference engine performs the reasoning in an expert system. a. true b. false
Q5. Genetic algorithms and intelligent agents are essentially the same thing. a. true b. false
Q6. AI is behavior by a machine that if performed by a human would be deemed intelligent. a. true b. false
Q7. Most expert systems are limited to a narrow domain. a. true b. false
Q8. Knowledge, rather than data or information, is a key concept of AI. a. true b. false
Q9. Expert systems are called expert because they require a domain expert. a. true b. false
Q10. Backward chaining looks at the IF part of a rule first, then evaluates its result. a. true b. false
Q11. Voice recognition requires the use of artificial intelligence. a. true b. false
Q12. Expert systems typically deal with qualitative data easily. a. true b. false
Q13. Knowledge transfer from the expert to the expert system is subject to perceptual biases. a. true b. false
Q14. Most of the knowledge within an organization is contained with a few experts. a. true b. false
Q15. The knowledge base of an expert system is the same as a knowledge repository in a knowledge management system. a. true b. false
Q16. One generic category of expert systems is operations. a. true b. false
Q17. If final average > 93 then your grade is an A; is an example of a declarative rule. a. true b. false
Q18. Protocol tracking is a technique used to track the reasoning process of an expert. a. true b. false
Q19. There is a relationship between Mid-East oil production and the price of gasoline is an example of declarative knowledge. a. true b. false
Q20. RGA is most effective where the importance of attributes affecting a decision is unknown. a. true b. false
Q21. Procedural knowledge are a series of statements of facts. a. true b. false
Q22. Surface knowledge deals with specific situations. a. true b. false
Q23. Knowledge acquisition is always acquired through structured interviews. a. true b. false
Q24. Validation of the knowledge base is the exclusive responsibility of the knowledge engineer. a. true b. false
Q25. The personality of a knowledge engineer can have a direct influence on experts who are contributing to a knowledge base. a. true b. false
Q26. It is possible to observe experts in action, because they really like to be observed. a. true b. false
Q27. Shallow knowledge considers the internal and causal structure of the knowledge. a. true b. false
Q28. For knowledge to be considered valid it must be documented. a. true b. false
Q29. Acquiring knowledge is easy; managing knowledge is difficult. a. true b. false
Q30. Knowledge stored by human experts is typically structured. a. true b. false
Q31. Knowledge engineering typically involves acquiring knowledge from experts. a. true b. false
Q32. The Web has yet to make an impact on expert systems. a. true b. false
Q33. One of the advantages of the case-based reasoning approach is that learning can occur from failures as well as successes. a. true b. false
Q34. Learning rate and momentum are adjusted when training a back propagation neural network. a. true b. false
Q35. Modification rules determine the scope of change when using an historical case to evaluate a new problem. a. true b. false
Q36. Fuzzy logic has a consistent set of mathematical and membership operations. a. true b. false
Q37. Machine learning describes how a computer system learns from experience. a. true b. false
Q38. Machine learning and knowledge acquisition are essentially the same thing. a. true b. false
Q39. Fuzzy logic is designed primarily to handle structured problems that are repetitive in nature. a. true b. false
Q40. The primary knowledge element in case-based reasoning is the rule base. a. true b. false
Q41. Machine learning utilizes historical cases. a. true b. false
Q42. Most complex neural networks require virtually no hidden layers, relying instead on a large number of input and output layers. a. true b. false
Q43. Machine learning is used in knowledge acquisition, inferencing, and problem solving. a. true b. false
Q44. Case-based reasoning is appropriate when the problem domain is already precedent based. a. true b. false
Q45. Some neural network learning methods involve computing errors between known outputs and computed outputs and propagating the corrections forward through the network. a. true b. false
Q46. Machine learning is considered an artificial intelligence method. a. true b. false
Q47. A recurrent layer is one in which activity must go through the network more than once. a. true b. false
Q48. Case-based reasoning relies on indexing new events for subsequent usage. a. true b. false
Q49. Inductive learning allows the computer to use historical cases to solve new problems. a. true b. false
Q50. Neural systems are comprised of processing elements called artificial neuritis. a. true b. false.
